Reasons for Re Launching Electric Car †Reva Essay Example for Free

Reasons for Re Launching Electric Car – Reva Essay Introduction : The Reva Electric Car Company (RECC) was founded in 1994 by Chetan Maini, as a joint venture between the Maini Group of Bangalore and Amerigon Electric Vehicle Technologies (AEVT Inc. ) of the USA. The companys sole aim was to develop and produce an affordable compact electric car. Several other automakers were also aiming to do so, but in 2001 RECC launched the REVA Reva, started off with a bang : The first electric car in India and the people behind the car were confident of the success of the car. Plans were set and the forecasting team estimated that 1500 cars would be sold by the end of the first year. Three years after its launch, Reva barely managed to sell a total of 300 cars. Reva was subsequently pulled off Indian markets. On May 26th 2010, Mahindra Group bought a 55. 2% majority stake in Reva and now has plans of relaunching the car in Indian markets. This article explores reasons for the failure of Reva and what should be Mahindra Reva’s Strategy for achieving success in the Indian market. * Reva was positioned as a â€Å"Green, low operating cost car†. The marketing strategy when Reva was first launched mainly concentrated on the car being green and the first of its type in the electric car segment. But this was not enough to create ripples amongst the consumers. * With a small size, easy to drive (no clutch or gear) and slow speed, Reva was targeted at small families, old couples and female drivers. While Reva had a beneficial cost proposition of only Rs. 0. 40 paise per km travelled, it was not a cheap car. Priced at around Rs. 3. 75 lakhs, people would have preferred to purchase a Maruti Zen or an Alto which are within the same price range. The major problem with Reva was that it was perceived to be a low cost car, but it was actually not. Also it was not a car that the rich wanted to buy, as it looked below their league. In one word, Reva, was a total misfit. * Aesthetically, Reva did not appeal to the youth. It was not fast, did not have a high range, had high maintenance problems (100 % charging needed 8 hours) and was not meant for long drives. The small car space and the design made it look like a rather uncomfortable car. People do advocate being green but they are not willing to sacrifice their comfort for it. * The marketing campaign for Reva also was not an aggressive one. The car made news for itself for being the first electric car in the Indian market but no marketing effort was made to create ripples in the customers. The buzz through promotions and advertisements was very low. There was no excitement and curiosity created in the minds of the consumers before the product launch. A research done by me amongst 50 female drivers, 35 elderly people (50+ age) and 20 couples has helped me come up with the following customer value hierarchy for a Car: 1. Core benefit: Takes you from one place to another without an inconvenience. 2. Basic product: Easy to drive, comfortable seats and leg room, high mileage. 3. Expected Product: Safety, does not break down, easy to repair. 4. Augmented Product: Speed, smooth on road, Stylish. 5. Potential Product: Environment friendly. As seen the points bolded in red font are the ones that Reva clearly misses. Not being able to satisfy the core, basic and expected product benefits has been a major miss in the marketing strategy of Reva. If Reva has to be successful it has to first cater to these customer benefits, satisfy them and then only will being environment friendly be a product differentiator. Reva had expected to sell around 1500 cars in its first year itself. After 3 years, Reva managed to sell only about350 odd cars. This is a definite failure in the first innings of Reva. However the fact that it is the only one in the electric car market, a proper marketing strategy can help it become a success. Reva’s Second Innings: A Re-launch Strategy It is not like Green cars are boring and cannot be successful. Take the example of Roadster Tesla an electric car which is the coolest and one of the most aspired cars in the automobile market. So surely there is no reason for Reva to fail if it is marketed in the right way. If the car is able to satisfy the core, basic and expected benefits of its target audience then we have a winner on our hands. In today’s, Global warming era. Being green is in fact the in thing. But just Green Cannot Sell. Reva should market itself on its other facets as well. Consider the slogan below for marketing Reva: Reva: â€Å"Easy to drive, Stylish, Comfortable Car †¦ By the way, we are also Green† The easy to drive attribute is already present in Reva. Reva needs to do slight alterations in its design to make it look more stylish, ergonomically designed for seating and safety needs. As given in the figure above, Reva should look at targeting the growing female car owners. Also it should target the young and old couples, who find the cuteness factor in the car, exciting enough to purchase it. Reva should be promoted as a â€Å"Fun† car to hang out with. Promotions The Reva advertisements should not hire any stars to advertise it. Instead it should look at taking the common office going man, the girl next door, the college couple to brand it. This will ensure that its target audience connect to the advertisement and Reva to a greater extent. The greenness in Reva can be subtly highlighted in the advertisements. The promotion ideas for both print and television advertisements are: 1. The office goer: How because of heavy traffic he used to reach late to office and get reprimanded by his boss. How now Reva has made him reach office in time and get promotions. Catch line: â€Å"Traffic problems. No Problem. Reva is here† 2. The girl next door: How Reva has made her independent. Highlight the ease and comfort of driving the car in the advertisement. Catch line: â€Å"Get Independent. Do The Reva† 3. The lovebirds: A part by part ad series in which an old couple get nostalgic on how they started their love story in a Reva and their memories associated with the Reva car. Highlight the comfort of the Reva car. Catch line: â€Å"Reva getting you closer† Social media promotions – Low cost and high effect. 1. Social gaming applications in which users play a car racing game and get green credits for using the Reva Car. This will help spread the Reva brand virally. 2. Get expert reviews on the Reva car and publish them on the Reva Blog. 3. Have a contest in which users can upload their Reva moment on YouTube. Also upload YouTube videos to show how Reva makes a greener world. 4. Have, â€Å"The Spacious Reva Contest†: Customers try to fit in as many of their friends in a Reva car and upload a picture of it on Facebook. The one with maximum likes would win the contest. 5. Listen to what your customers are saying about Reva, how are they feeling about Reva? Have you managed to create the right buzz? Social media would tell you instantly and help you to do any kind of damage control if necessary. The social media is a good measure on how well your marketing strategy has worked. In conclusion , Reva has already in its â€Å"First Innings†, highlighted its attribute of being a Green Car. The â€Å"Second Innings† strategy that has been mentioned will market Reva as an easy to drive, safe, stylish and comfortable car. Thus satisfying the core, basic and expected needs of its customers which will help the Reva car become a success story. While the Mahindra brand name and its distribution network and capabilities in the Indian market should definitely benefit Reva, in having a successful second innings. The strategy outlined above should help Reva preventing burns and scars the second time round.

The Nature of Duality in Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde Essay

The Nature of Duality in Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde It has long been debated that there are two sides to the human mind. Many philosophers have stressed on the fact that human beings are 'dual creatures’. There is the duality of good and evil, right and wrong, joy and despair. There always is the desire to do something which is against the society, against the laws, although this varies from person to person. Robert Stevenson brings the possibility of another self in one person to life in his creation of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde. His novel is a rich tale of the duality of mankind. We all have a split personality in a sense, we have two sides to us: right and wrong. There is a Mr. Hyde in all of us: anger, frustration, murderous thoughts all prevail in us although we have evolved so much. Morals, education, helping and unselfishness are the Jekyll side of us. Stevenson believed that people knew they had a bad side, but they all refuse to accept the truth, as the ‘dark side’ is so unpleasant. The novel demonstrates how innocent curiosity about the darker elements of our nature can soon get out of hand, how the evil triumphs over good if let out of control. Stevenson portrays duality in almost all of his characters, mainly Dr. Henry Jekyll. The symbols used, the narrative viewpoints and the language use by Stevenson also puts forward the dual nature of man. The philosophical context of the novella also is another factor which Stevenson cleverly uses. Stevenson creates a novel of gothic genre, which was extremely popular at the time of release. And the bottom line of the novel is to entertain the reader. The nature of duality, the philosophical context, the scientific context, symbolism, and hy... ...onality. Darwin’s theory of evolution and Freud’s creation of psychoanalysis are well portrayed in this novel. Overall, Stevenson clearly implies that humans are a mixture of ‘good’ and evil’ and challenges the ‘human perfectibility’, which was presumed for the upper class at the time. I particularly enjoyed this novel as it was exploring various themes at the same time. One interesting point is that, when Jekyll made up the ‘transforming draught’, it never was intended to turn him evil. It was just his desires which propelled him to being Hyde. The potion just acted as a catalyst and in the end it was Jekyll who destroyed himself. We had discussed this in class and it struck me as it wasn’t an evil potion. This also shows that Jekyll wanted to break through the Victorian laws and meet his inner desires, which leads us back to the ‘nature of duality’.

Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Define the term `ergonomics'. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the possible effects on health that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of visual display unit (VDU) workstations. (4)| |(c)|Outline the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic assessment of a workstation to be used by a VDU operator. |(14)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Provide sketches to show clearly the nature of the following mechanical hazards f rom moving parts of machinery: || |(i)|entanglement|(2)| |(ii)|crushing|(2)| |(iii)|drawing-in|(2)| |(iv)|shear. |(2)| |||| |(a)|Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the inspection and maintenance requirements for fire extinguishers in the workplace. |(4)| |||| 4||Explain the meaning of the following terms in relation to noise control|| |(i)|silencing|(2)| |(ii)|absorption|(2)| |(iii)|damping|(2)| |(iv)|isolation. |(2)| |||| 5||Outline a procedure for the safe lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(8)| |||| |(a)|Define the term `target organ' within the context of occupational health. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance. |(6)| |||| 7||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| 8||List the items that should be included on an inspection checklist designed to ensure the safety of portable electrical appliances. |(8)| |||| |||| 9||Outline the main precautions to be taken when carrying out excavation work. (8)| |||| 10|(a)|State TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. |(2)| |(b)|Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. |(6)| |||| 11||List the ways in which a fork lift truck may become unstable whilst in operation. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A1 – Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question aimed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge in relation to ergonomics. Socratic Seminar QuestionsMany candidates, for part (a), were able to provide adequate definitions of ergonomics, which is generally accepted as being the study of the interaction between workers and their work, and is concerned with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the needs and limitations of the human operator in mind. Definitions such as `man-machine interface', which still commonly appear in candidates' answers, are considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with far more than simply the use of machinery.Part (b) required candidates to demonstrate an understanding of the possible health effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A number of candidates simply listed conditions such as work-related upper limb disorders and eye strain, which was insufficient to gain high marks. The question required candidates to provide an outline of such conditions in order to demonstrate a proper understanding of the effects. An adequate outline would typically include detail of symptoms and the circumstances that would make the effects more likely.The final part of the question was answered reasonably well by most candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the task and the individual, and their inter-relationships. Some candidates went beyond the scope of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, most of the factors relevant to an ergonomic assessment are contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, some answers included non-ergonomic issues such as fire safety and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to read the question thoroughly and to take note of key words and phrases. Section 2 Question 2 An understanding of mechanical hazards associated with moving par ts of machinery is a key part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was designed to test candidates' understanding of the categorisation of mechanical hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 292:1991, `Safety of machinery – basic concepts, general principles for design' (and in the former British Standard, BS 5304:1988, `Safeguarding of machinery').Examiners were not looking for works of art; they did, however, require something that clearly represented parts of machinery and which demonstrated the particular hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helped enormously in this task. Some sketches were so poor that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas others were extremely well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable number of candidates showed confusion between the different types of hazard; in particular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often interchanged, and `shearing' seemed u nfamiliar to many. Examiners were quite concerned that on the whole candidates did not take advantage of what should have been easily obtainable marks from this question. Question 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), nearly all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel distances, and the means of supporting the equipment off the ground and free from obstruction. Only a few candidates, however, identified the need to protect extinguishers from the weather and other sources of damage. A little more difficulty was found with part (b), which required candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational.There were, however, some very good answers that clearly differentiated between the purposes of an inspection and those of maintenance. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, have not been discharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something rather more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a competent person according to the manufacturer's instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be faulty.Question 4 This question sought to assess candidates' knowledge of basic noise control terms and principles. Unfortunately, many candidates either confused the terms, particularly damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to noise control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to giving other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at Work Regulations 1989, and for which marks were n ot therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that: silencing refers to the suppression of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and pipes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of either absorptive material or baffles; absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by using materials such as foam or mineral wool; damping is used primarily to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels; and isolation refers to the physical separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some good answers included simple sketches and examples to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this area. Question 5 This was a question where candidates could earn high marks by imagining a lifti ng operation and then applying appropriate controls from first principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation needs to take into account such issues as: the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe working load, free from defect, etc); the competence of the persons involved (driver, slinger, signaller); ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary; ensuring proper communication; keeping the area clear of other persons; and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Question 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the h armful effects of a toxic substance are normally confined to particular organs within the human body, such as the lungs, liver, skin or kidneys. Hence, a `target organ' is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is exposed to, or is contaminated by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the risk of ingestion and the role played by personal hygiene in reducing the risk.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to miss the words `personal hygiene' and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. Good answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as regular hand washing, the restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace, the use of suitable personal protective equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothing. Question 7 The importance of foot protection is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle in juries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates' awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was pleasing to note that a high proportion of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, identifying good examples of the types of hazard and the appropriate footwear requirements. The most common included: falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of contamination (washable boots), molten metal (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were pleased with the overall response to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fairly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included: equipment appropriate for the task and environment; equipment tested; equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage; correct wiring and sound connections; fuses and other means of preventing excess current in place and of correct rating; accessible and appropriate means of isolation; and system not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include collapse of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, contact with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and contact with mechanical plant. Candidates should have been able to outline a range of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include: detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc); support of sides; storage of materials and spoil away from edge; means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks); guard-rails and barriers; means of preventing collapse of adjacent structures; safe means of access/egress; testing for, and ventil ation of, noxious fumes; means of pumping out water; procedures for working with mechanical plant; and general issues such as inspection, training and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed particularly well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to identify several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not affecting the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with as bestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were: insecure, excessive or uneven loading; incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travelling; uneven or unconsolidated ground; slopes (and incorrect procedures to deal with them); obstructions (overhead and low level); cornering at excessive speeds; sudden braking; poor condition of tyres; and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2: THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Out line the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. |(4)| |(b)|Describe the FOUR factors that should be considered when making an assessment of manual handling operations. |(16)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace emergency. |(8)| |||| 3|(a)|Define the term `negligence'|(2)| (b)|Outline the THREE standard conditions that must be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. |(6)| |||| 4||Outline the key points that should be covered in a training session for employees on the reporting of accidents/incidents. |(8)| |||| 5||List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. |(8)| |||| 6||With reference to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996:|| |(i)|explain the difference between `consulting' and `informing'|(2)| |(ii)|outline the health and safety matters on which employers must consult their employees. |(6)| |||| ||Outline TWO reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in monitoring an organisation's health and safety performance. |(8)| |||| 8||Outline the reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work. |(8)| |||| |||| 9|(a)|Explain the meaning of the terms: (i) ‘occupational exposure standard’ (OES) (ii) ‘maximum exposure limit’ (MEL). |(2)(2)| |(b)|Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. |(4)| |||| 10|(a)|Explain the meaning of the term ‘safe system of work’. |(2)| |(b)|Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. |(6)| |||| 1||Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid provision in a workplace. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A2 – The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good responses to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers' duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of: avoiding manual handling operations wherever possible; conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks; taking steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable; providing information to employees on the weig ht and weight distribution of the load; and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) required candidates to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special information and training. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were generally able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical leakage or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide qui te reasonable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an actual emergency (usually a fire) rather than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities: the identification and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities; the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc; the number of persons affected; assessment of special needs (disabled persons, children, etc); warning systems; emergency lighting; the location of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc; the equipment required to deal with the emergency; the location of assembly points; communication with emergency services; and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the local community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort inv olving a breach of the common law duty to take reasonable care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of criminal liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identified the three standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence: firstly, that a duty of care is owed; secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care; and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates made use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word `reporting' solely in relation to the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases an d Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the actual procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little difficulty was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to: the suitability of work equipment ; training; maintenance of equipment; conformity with EU requirements; preventing contact with dangerous parts of machinery; protection against specified hazards; protection against high or low temperatures; stop and emergency stop controls; position of controls; safety of control systems; means of isolation; stability; lighting; safety of maintenance operations; and the provision of markings and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by giving detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.Despite much of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the `action verb' in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between `informing' and `consulting'. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearly a ll candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of guesswork (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1 977.They include: the introduction of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees' health and safety; the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons; the planning and organisation of health and safety training; the health and safety implications of introducing new technology; and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as `reactive' (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are `proactive' (identifying non-compliance with polic y or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as: unrealistic or ill-considered procedures; mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account; inadequate training; poor organisational safety culture; complacency/lack of motivation; peer group pressure; other priorities and pressures; risks not perceived; slips and lapses; fatigue and stress; and perceived lack of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners' Reports drawing attention to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that average airborne conc entrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered `safe'. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates' explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the breakdo wn in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the subject of special health surveillance. Question 10 The development of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an inspector might tak e, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or prohibition notice, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give verbal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of young, disabled or peripatetic employe es. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a dust problem that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorised alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of th e principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contac t with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when: (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with better candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools: rather than with a me chanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with `tunnels'), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners' were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only about half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of isolating the power supply in either part of the question.Some can didates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the preparation of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a permit-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard:|| (i) fixed guard|(2)| (ii) interlocked guard. |(2)| (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed|| machine guard. |(4)| In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the p rinciple that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to increased reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as: inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage); ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands); entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin; and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) ro of. (8)This question sought to test candidates' knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, identifying and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety goggles compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also generally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fa ct that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with laying paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as: trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs; the possibility of being struck by traffic; injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles); the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement; and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outline measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List EIGHT non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, various mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing office accommodation before recruiting staff. Outline: (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situa tion described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were involved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident repo rting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify ‘sanitary conveniences' without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level o f stress amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms: (i) `hazard'|(2)| (ii) `risk'|(3)| (iii) `so far as is reasonably practicable'. |(3)| Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term `hazard'. As far as ‘risk' was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain `so far is as reasonably practicable', most candidates inferred that this involves balancing risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In r elation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline: (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative|(6)| (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety || representatives. | (2)| || In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a private room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word `facilities' and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be || considered appropriate. |(2)| b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. |(6)| For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit syst em, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements – namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appear ed to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the adva ntages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information and in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at wo rk. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the existence of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and th eir contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the mea ning of the term `suitable and sufficient'. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term `suitable and sufficient' in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisation's, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compare d over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. |(3)| |(b)|Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7)| |(c)|Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(10)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||In relation to occupational dermatitis:|| |(i)|identify TWO common causative agents|(2)| |(ii)|describe the typical symptoms of the condition |(3)| |(iii)|state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. |(3)| |||| 3||A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. | |(i)|Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. |(3)| |(ii)|Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. |(5)| |||| 4||State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. |(8)| |||| 5|(a)|Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. |(4)| |(b)|Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. |(4)| |||| 6||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the us e of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| ||The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. |(8)| |||| 8|(a)|Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. |(4)| |||| 9||Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the spread of fire. |(8)| |||| 10|(a)|List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. |(2)| |(b)|Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. |(6)| |||| 1||List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1999 Paper A1 – Ident ifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates' knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly

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Society in its greatest forms is diverse however, nowadays it seems that much has changed. People are now saying that they themselves are diverse except as Mr. Kenneth Gibbs Jr. said, â€Å"diversity is a property of groups, not individuals†. This idea that diversity cannot be found in any one person and only in a group shows that society has a lot to gain from supporting it. In many ways this has changed though, society, as seen in the next few paragraphs, has gone through a horrible change that has led to it segregating certain cultures and praising others.This will only further show that society has much to gain from supporting a culturally diverse community and environment. In the past decade so much has happened that society has changed†¦show more content†¦What he is saying is that the word diversity is so overused that it has been warped to fit the ideal American. This is causing the segregation and hatred for others in this new generation, but it is also causing more acceptance. Children, the new generation, nowadays are more acceptable to different cultures and the people in them. They, as the future of any culture, have mostly managed to grasp the concept of being accepting. This something that their parents haven’t quite yet understood. In New Zealand Kirsty Johnson, an education reporter, wrote about the kids going to school New Zealand and how they were with the cultural difference between themselves and the other students. â€Å"One student was specifically asked about the others reacted to her headscarf, she merely replied, ‘no one cares’†. As Kristy stated, â€Å"Race is of no particular concern to the kids, though they re proud of where they come from†, she is stating that the kids of this school show no judgment towards each other, this level of accepting is just one of the things that society can gain by being supportive of the cultural difference in any environment. Another thing that society can gain from an env ironment of culturally diverse people is that they will know more about the many different cultures around them. It is important that society learns that not everyone that is different is

6 Main Reasons Why Most Students Digress During the Process of Writing a Paper

Another class, another paper. It never seems to end! School life is full of essays, essays, and more essays. Though you may have the best intentions of working on a paper right when you receive the assignment, it can be very easy to get distracted. The best way to stop yourself from becoming distracted is to become aware of the things that get you sidetracked in the first place. Knowing these will help you stay away from them or not do them since you know they call your attention away from the task. 1.   Social Networks Social networking is so fun. It’s the way you stay connected and share your experience. However, it’s also a major time-killer. Because you are already on your computer when you are going through the process of writing a paper, it is always tempting to jump online and see what your friends are up to on Facebook, Twitter, etc. The best thing to do is to turn off your Wi-Fi when writing. 2.   TV Shows Think you are able to produce a timely paper while having Netflix on at the same time? Think again. Even though you think you can type and watch TV at the same time, you can’t. Or rather, you can, but your paper will suffer since you won’t be entirely focused. Turn off the tube! 3.   Friends It sounds like so much fun to go out and party or just hang out with friends instead of writing an essay. Your friends may even make you feel guilty or suggest that you can do your paper later if you say you want to stay home and work on it. Be strong and stern. Your friends will have to wait until you are done (or maybe halfway done). 4.   Food It’s true that many people eat when they are bored or rather not do a task. Putting things off by eating a snack is a really common way that students digress. Wandering around the kitchen opening cabinets to see what’s available, even when you aren’t that hungry is a huge distracter. Resist the temptation! 5.   Smartphones Similar to social networks, phones are a way to get lost in the many apps, text messages, and pictures to look at and play with. During the time that you set aside for writing your paper, you should also turn off your phone to avoid getting sucked in and losing your precious time. 6.   Making Excuses The biggest excuse you can make and one that is commonly used is that you write better under time pressure. This is just another way of postponing the writing process. You know you will have to write that essay eventually. Hopefully, it won’t be the hour before it’s due. Become more self-disciplined and take initiative to finish something that you need to do anyway. The result will impress you in the end.

Brave New World As A Dystopian Society - 1139 Words

Brave New World was written by Aldous Huxley in 1932. The novel was originally published in 1932 to Harper and Brothers, Publishers and copyrighted the same year. The novel is a dystopian science fiction and is 259 pages. The story creates an industrious view of society that is draws from the rise in mass production at the time it was written. These factors set up the basis of the dystopian society created by Huxley. Brave New World is set in London, World State or the United Kingdom, in the year 2540 or A.F. 632. The novel is told from a third-person omniscient point of view that tells the story surrounding several different characters. The novel has several different main characters including Lenina Crowne, Bernard Marx, and John the†¦show more content†¦It is explained here how the catses are used to ensure order and maintain a need for labourers that keep the cycle in place. The D.H.C. is also introduced along with Lenina and Bernard. Lenina who is fascinated by Bernard and embarks on a short romance with him that leads to their trip to the New Mexico Savage Reservation.When getting his permit for the trip from the Director, Bernard is told of how the Director had been there and left behind a beta-minus girl when she had gotten lost. The Director the threatens Bernard with being transferred to Iceland upon his return. Upon his arrival in New Mexico Bernard calls his friend Helmholtz Watson who tells him that Iceland was more than a threat. Once the couple reach the reservation they observe the savages and bare witness to an sacrifice said to help with agriculture. Lenina cannot endure this sight and is desperate for her drugs called â€Å"soma† and then meets John the Savage for the first time. This begins the rising action where Bernard realises that Linda, John’s mother, is the same girl that the Director had left in the reservation and that John was his son. Bernard brings both back to London and uses them to take down the Directo r and change his position in society from outcast to an idol. Linda begins to consume mass amounts of soma to cope with her depression and shortens her life from years to months. Meanwhile, John hadShow MoreRelatedComparing the Dystopian Society in Brave New World and Modern Society1443 Words   |  6 Pages The meaning of happiness is a vague concept. Mankind has always tried to achieve this state of well-being even though there isn’t a clear definition. Brave New World tells the story of a society where there is nothing but happiness, just like a utopia, but it is considered a dystopian setting by the modern society. 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Critical Analysis of the viability of Renewable Energy Free Essays

INTRODUCTION AND OVERVIEW This Essay would tend to analyse and define Renewable Energy as a whole.It would also list and discuss types/main forms of renewable energy and its commercialization to members of the public. The essay would aim to discuss economic importance of Renewable energy,new and future use of renewable energy as regards research and methods. We will write a custom essay sample on Critical Analysis of the viability of Renewable Energy or any similar topic only for you Order Now Finalise and suggest for safe use of renewable energy. DEFINITION OF RENEWABLE ENERGY Renewable energy could be defined as energy which is extracted from natural resources such as,sunlight,wind,rains,geothermal heat and tides which in turn are renewable over and over. TYPES/MAIN FORMS OF RENEWABLE ENERGY i.Wind Power One hot type of alternative energy is wind power which is steadily growing at the rate of 30% annually, with a worldwide installed capacity of 121,000 megawatts (MW) in 2008, and is widely used in European countries and the United States. While some people may feel these are hideous looking intruders, wind energy could generate 20 percent of the electricity needed by households and businesses in the eastern half of the United States by 2024. ii.Hydropower Brazil has one of the largest renewable energy programs in the world, involving production of ethanol fuel from sugar cane, and ethanol now provides 18% of the country’s automotive fuel. They have also recently been granted permission for building a huge dam in the heart of the Amazon rainforest which would generate a ton of hydroelectric power helping with Latin America’s demand for electricity. Unfortunately, this form of renewable energy may hurt the local indigenous people and have a negative impact on the environment. iii. Solar Energy In searching for a definition of renewable energy, you are bound to come across solar power which use photovoltaic cells to convert the radiation from the sun into usable energy. These extremely versatile systems can power everything from your small PUMA cell phone to massive building complexes. In fact, after Haiti’s horrendous and disastrous earthquake, solar cells easily replaced a dwindling diesel supply. Alan Doyle, a science editor at MSNBC, recently wrote that a single solar water purification system, recovered from the rubble by the Red Cross, is now purifying 30,000 gallons (over 110,000 liters) of water a day. iv.Biomass Biomass (plant material) is a renewable energy source because the energy it contains comes from the sun. Through the process of photosynthesis, plants capture the sun’s energy. When the plants are burnt, they release the sun’s energy they contain. In this way, biomass functions as a sort of natural battery for storing solar energy. As long as biomass is produced sustainably, with only as much used as is grown, the battery will last indefinitely. In general there are two main approaches to using plants for energy production: growing plants specifically for energy use, and using the residues from plants that are used for other things. The best approaches vary from region to region according to climate, soils and geography.[ v.Biofuel Brazil has bioethanol made from sugarcane available throughout the country. Shown a typical Petrobras gas station at Sao Paulo with dual fuel service, marked A for alcohol (ethanol) and G for gasoline.Biofuels include a wide range of fuels which are derived from biomass. The term covers solid biomass, liquid fuels and various biogases. Liquid biofuels include bio alcohols, such as bioethanol, and oils, such as biodiesel. Gaseous biofuels include biogas, landfill gas and synthetic gas. Bioethanol is an alcohol made by fermenting the sugar components of plant materials and it is made mostly from sugar and starch crops. With advanced technology being developed, cellulosic biomass, such as trees and grasses, are also used as feed stocks for ethanol production. Ethanol can be used as a fuel for vehicles in its pure form, but it is usually used as a gasoline additive to increase octane and improve vehicle emissions. Bioethanol is widely used in the USA and in Brazil. Biodiesel is made from vegetable oils, animal fats or recycled greases. Biodiesel can be used as a fuel for vehicles in its pure form, but it is usually used as a diesel additive to reduce levels of particulates, carbon monoxide, and hydrocarbons from diesel-powered vehicles. Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using trans esterification and is the most common biofuel in Europe. Biofuels provided 2.7% of the world’s transport fuel in 2010. vi.Geothermal energy. Krafla Geothermal Station in northeast IcelandGeothermal energy is energy obtained by tapping the heat of the earth itself, both from kilometers deep into the Earth’s crust in volcanically active locations of the globe or from shallow depths, as in geothermal heat pumps in most locations of the planet. It is expensive to build a power station but operating costs are low resulting in low energy costs for suitable sites. Ultimately, this energy derives from heat in the Earth’s core. Three types of power plants are used to generate power from geothermal energy: dry steam, flash, and binary. Dry steam plants take steam out of fractures in the ground and use it to directly drive a turbine that spins a generator. Flash plants take hot water, usually at temperatures over 200  °C, out of the ground, and allows it to boil as it rises to the surface then separates the steam phase in steam/water separators and then runs the steam through a turbine. In binary plants, the hot water flows through heat exchangers, boiling an organic fluid that spins the turbine. The condensed steam and remaining geothermal fluid from all three types of plants are injected back into the hot rock to pick up more heat.[citation needed] The geothermal energy from the core of the Earth is closer to the surface in some areas than in others. Where hot underground steam or water can be tapped and brought to the surface it may be used to generate electricity. Such geothermal power sources exist in certain geologically unstable parts of the world such as Chile, Iceland, New Zealand, United States, the Philippines and Italy. The two most prominent areas for this in the United States are in the Yellowstone basin and in northern California. Iceland produced 170 MW geothermal power and heated 86% of all houses in the year 2000 through geothermal energy. Some 8000 MW of capacity is operational in total. ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE OF RENEWABLE ENERGY Renewable energy is often considered as the best way to tackle global warming and climate change. The more renewable energy we use the less fossil fuel we burn, and less burning of fossil fuels means less carbon dioxide emissions and lesser impact to climate change. There are really plenty of reasons to choose renewable energy over fossil fuels but we must not forget that renewable energy is still not ready to completely replace fossil fuels. Some day it will be but not just yet. The most important thing to do right now is to further develop different renewable energy technologies in order to ensure that once this day comes world wouldn’t have to worry whether renewable energy will be able to deliver the goods or not. Together with costs renewable energy will also need to improve its efficiency. For instance, average solar panels have efficiency of around 15% which means that lot of energy gets wasted and transferred into heat, instead of some other form of usable energy. However, there are many ongoing researches with the goal to improve efficiency of renewable energy technologies, some of which have been really promising, though we are yet to see some highly efficient and commercially viable renewable energy solution. Renewable energy sector could decide to choose a â€Å"sit and wait strategy† because fossil fuels will eventually become depleted and renewable energy would then remain as the best alternative to satisfy world’s hunger for energy. But this would be a bad strategy for two reasons: energy security and climate change Renewable energy is very popular topic these days and here are some advantages and disadvantages of renewable energy. Like fossil fuels do so does renewable energy have certain advantages and disadvantages. Economy, ecology, and efficiency are only some of the factors through which we should look renewable energy when discussing its advantages and disadvantages. As the name already suggests renewable energy sources cannot be depleted like this is the case with fossil fuels. Fossil fuels are limited, and therefore one day coal, oil, and natural gas will be depleted but the same scenario won’t happen with renewable energy sources because Sun will continue to shine, wind will continue to blow, etc. It is difficult to say how long will fossil fuels still be able to satisfy large part of global energy demand, some energy experts believe this is likely to last till the end of this century, but in any case once fossil fuels become depleted world will need to have already established alternative in form of renewable energy. From the ecological point of view renewable energy has extreme advantage over fossil fuels, renewable energy sources are clean energy sources and unlike coal, oil, and natural gas release none or negligible carbon emissions. Fossil fuels on the other hand when burning release harmful carbon emissions that not only pollute our planet but have contributed to the severity of climate change impact. The cost-competitiveness of renewable energy sources, despite the serious improvement in renewable energy technologies in the last couple of years still remains one of the biggest disadvantages of renewable energy. In order for renewable energy to become cost-competitive with fossil fuels lot more research will be needed to mostly improve efficiency of renewable energy technologies because efficiency and economy still outweigh positive environmental effects in eyes of many people. Renewable energy also needs to work on energy storage solutions to ensure reliability of delivery because the most important renewable energy sources are intermittent (wind, solar), and are therefore not totally reliable. The lack of tradition is also one disadvantage of renewable energy. Fossil fuels have long tradition, and many renewable energy sectors have just started developing. Tradition that fossil fuels have on their side has contributed to the development of powerful fossil fuel lobbies that have significant impact on politics, and these lobbies use this influence to get important decisions their way. Many countries in the world rely on foreign oil import, and by developing their own domestic renewable energy sectors they would help decrease the dependence on importing oil from other countries, and would also diversify their own energy portfolio in the process. The development of renewable energy sectors can also create many economic benefits for countries, mostly in form of many new green jobs. CONCLUSION . Source: REN21[16] BIBLOGRAPHY renewable energy.† Encyclop?dia Britannica. Encyclop?dia Britannica Online. Encyclop?dia Britannica, 2011. Web. 31 Jul. 2011. . How to cite Critical Analysis of the viability of Renewable Energy, Essay examples